Matthew 13 Q&A with Tim Rowe

I don't quite get the logic in 13:13. If the reason he speaks in parables is because the people will not perceive or understand, doesn't that mean would be free to speak plainly (given the crowd would not understand either way?). I think it is interesting in v15 that God could clearly present the secrets of the kingdom yet deliberately obfuscate it, yet in v18-23, he reveals it to us. I wonder if…